Utility Maximization

Mr. Hopeless's got 10,000 won and a choice between booze and smokes — here's how indifference curves and the budget line team up to nail the one combo that maxes him out.

Skipping the intro, straight in.

The lines we kept dra~~~wing earlier were indifference curves. The axes were quantity of good $x$ and quantity of good $y$, so basically they were saying this:

I’ll just scribble one however.

Hand-drawn graph with cigarettes on the vertical axis and alcohol on the horizontal axis: a curve through three combinations that feel equally good

OK, that was the recap. Now one step further.

Today’s question

“So how much can you actually buy?”

Say Mr. Hopeless lives in a very ideal world. Income: 10,000 won. Alcohol is 1,000 won a bottle, cigarettes are 2,000 won a pack. And shall we plot it on the axes from before?! Like, just how much can Mr. Hopeless actually afford with 10,000 won?!

Budget line for 10,000 won: every combination of bottles and packs inside the shaded triangle is affordable

He can buy any combination sitting anywhere in the colored region. And if he blows all 10,000 won with nothing left over, he buys the combinations sitting on the line. So this line is called the budget line.

OK, so given that he has all these combos to pick from, which of the many, many scenarios should Mr. Hopeless actually go with?

The utility function answers that — and the utility function will also tell us there’s a “unique” best choice.

Sketch of the budget line with the points of one indifference curve: red points above the line, black points below it

Whichever of the combos represented by the points above he picks, Mr. Hopeless feels the same happiness. So will he just grab one of those points at random? That’s a no-no. Because he can squeeze more utility out than that — his income still allows it.

Utility equals the square root of x times y, with a red arrow meaning raise the utility

Let’s bump the utility up a notch from here. Then on the graph above, the utility function gets points plotted like this.

The same sketch with more indifference curves added: red points beyond the budget line, black points inside it

The newly added points give greater happiness than buying the combos on the previously existing points.

OK, since a minute ago I’ve been plotting red points and black points in different colors, here’s what they mean:

  • Red points = a combination in the region his income does NOT cover.
  • Black points = the alcohol & cigarettes combos he can buy with his income!!!

So will Mr. Hopeless pick from the black points he can see?! Won’t he keep pushing utility higher until it lands on a single point that maxes utility out, hunting for the alcohol & cigarettes combo that maximizes utility?

Wiping off the names

OK, now let’s wipe off the names “alcohol” and “cigarettes,” call them variables $x$ and $y$, assume $x$ and $y$ are real and continuous, and say the same thing one more time. Exa~~~ct same logic. Just minus the numbers.

The price of good $x$ will be written as p_x and the price of good $y$ as p_y. And income I’ll just call ‘income.’

If we draw the whole discussion above into one picture, it looks like this.

Graph of the budget line touching the higher indifference curve U2, with income over p_y and income over p_x as the intercepts

He buys the quantity combination of $x$ and $y$ given by the exact point where his indifference curve and his budget line are tangent~

(That’s because the assumption “higher utility is better” is baked in alongside.)

Also~~~, hmm~ did you catch this?! There was a sneaky implicit assumption that income is constant. That’s why the logic above holds. If we said Mr. Hopeless could also lower his income to maximize utility, the whole thing collapses.

(For the record, later we’ll also look at the case where we hold utility constant and tweak income instead.)

Oh — and as for why the budget line’s intercepts come out the way they do, I’ll just scribble a few lines of formula and leave it at that.

Derivation of the budget line: income = x p_x + y p_y, so y = -(p_x/p_y) x + income/p_y

Double-checking with importance

Heyyyy it’s not over yet. Now we’re going to double-check that picture using the concept of Importance. We’ll use importance of $x$, importance of $y$ — it’s not hard, it’s just common sense.

A indifference curve crossing the budget line at a red point, with the tangent drawn as a dotted red line

Say “Mr. Rational” is sitting at the red point above. This guy seems to value $x$ more than $y$~ Because

Giving up delta y and taking delta x along the tangent keeps utility the same

this is saying: giving up $\Delta y$ and grabbing exactly $\Delta x$ gives the same utility!

Giving up delta y he could take delta x for the same utility, or delta x prime more on top of it

But what if, instead of giving up $\Delta y$ and taking the $\Delta x$ that yields the same utility, you grab a smidge more — $\Delta x'$? Up to $\Delta x$ it was a wash like before, but since you grabbed $\Delta x'$ more on top of that, and more is better, the utility you feel ends up bigger than before. And if he gives up $\Delta y$, his income lets him buy that extra $\Delta x'$ too… But the satisfaction is even bigger…

So what would you do in his shoes?

Wouldn’t you give up $\Delta y$ and grab $\Delta x'$ more than that $\Delta x$, to make utility bigger than before? And then at the next point, he runs the same call again and again and again and again.

(That’s why his name is Mr. Rational.)

Now!!! Got it?! Following this kind of mechanism, there’s a unique bundle of goods that maxes out utility at his income level, and as everyone probably noticed by now, the location of that spot is where the budget line and the indifference curve are tangent. Make sense?

Time to smash it with formulas

First — since we know the “tangency” concept, the focus is on slope. The slope of the budget line is

The same budget line derivation: income = x p_x + y p_y, so y = -(p_x/p_y) x + income/p_y

so the slope is -\frac{p_x}{p_y}.

And the slope of the tangent on the indifference curve would be $dy/dx$ — but since this is a two-variable function right now, to express that,

The slope of the tangent: dy/dx = -(partial U over partial x) divided by (partial U over partial y)

this guy.

In econ textbooks

The textbook form: dy/dx = -MU_x/MU_y, where partial U over partial i is MU_i

it’s written like this. Let me derive it real quick.

Derivation: dU = 0 along an indifference curve gives dy/dx = -(partial U over partial x) divided by (partial U over partial y)

And “the tangency point” expressed in math means a spot where the slopes are equal, so the first tangency condition is

Tangency condition: -p_x/p_y = -(partial U over partial x) divided by (partial U over partial y)

That is,

The tangency condition: MU_x/p_x = MU_y/p_y

this is the condition.

What about a spot that’s not tangent?

If MU_x/p_x is not equal to MU_y/p_y, it is either greater or smaller

Look at what this term means.

MU_x/p_x is the utility gain from 1 unit of good x relative to its price

Can’t you read it like this? If that’s tough, you can also think of it this way.

The utility gain relative to spending on good x is dU/(p_x dx), written out as a fraction of utility gain over x spending

That is, if \frac{\mathrm{MU}_x}{p_x} \gt \frac{\mathrm{MU}_y}{p_y} is the state we’re in, utility gain relative to spending on good $x$ $>$ utility gain relative to spending on good $y$ — that’s the situation.

And if you’re rational here, what do you do?

If it were me, I’d try to push utility up by spending a bit more on good $x$.

(The formula is literally saying it rises more than if you bumped $y$ up, right.)

So say we nudge it up a little.

MU_x/p_x > MU_y/p_y again, after the shift: MU_x has shrunk (blue arrow) and MU_y has grown (red arrow)

Then at the point we’ve moved to, $\mathrm{MU}_x$ will have shrunk a little, by the law of diminishing utility.

(Diminishing utility was: the more you already have, the smaller the bump in $U$ from getting one more, right?!)

$\mathrm{MU}_x$ shrinks a touch. Even so, if the inequality is still $>$, what do you do? Spend a little more on good $x$!!@@

And on like that, repeating the same situation over and over~~~~, eventually it lands on \frac{\mathrm{MU}_x}{p_x} = \frac{\mathrm{MU}_y}{p_y}.

And in the situation where they’re exactly equal like that, since either direction is the same, this person stops repeating the above and just stays put.

So it has no choice but to drift toward equilibrium like this…

Convinced? lol


Heads-up. The figures here are the original notes, slips and all. A few things to watch for:

  • In the picture that takes the total differential along the indifference curve, the third line has a bare $d$ where $dy$ belongs: $\left(\frac{\partial U}{\partial x}\right)_y dx + \left(\frac{\partial U}{\partial y}\right)_x dy = 0$.

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